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can a bind prevent a trigger's set value?

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Don Smith-9
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can a bind prevent a trigger's set value?

Don Smith-9
I've got the following trigger:

<xforms:trigger bind="trigger_available">
 <xforms:label>Select</xforms:label>
 <xforms:action ev:event="DOMActivate">
   <xforms:setvalue
ref="list_A/selected">true</xforms:setvalue>
 </xforms:action>
</xforms:trigger>

which works fine *until* I place the
bind="trigger_available" attribute on it. The bind
statement sets the relevance of the trigger. Once I
set the relevance, the Select button still appears,
but it no longer works.

So either something is wrong with my bind statement,
or something funny is happening to the operation of
"setvalue" even though the bind statement is ok. I'm
assuming that something is wrong with my bind
statement, but so far I haven't figured out what it
is.

So now I just want to check and make sure that, given
a proper bind statement, this trigger should function
exactly as it does without the bind statement.

Is that correct?

Thanks,

Don


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fl.schmitt(ops-users)
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Re: can a bind prevent a trigger's set value?

fl.schmitt(ops-users)
Don,

> So now I just want to check and make sure that, given
> a proper bind statement, this trigger should function
> exactly as it does without the bind statement.

I suppose the problem isn't the trigger code but the xforms:bind
statement. Again, it would be helpful if there would be a simple example
that could be run in the sandbox to check that. I'v attached a simple
test file showing a trigger bound to a relevant statement. It contains
two triggers: the first one is bound to a relevance statement and
triggers a value change, the second one toggles the relevancy of the
first one.

HTH
florian




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test2.xhtml (2K) Download Attachment
Erik Bruchez
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Re: can a bind prevent a trigger's set value?

Erik Bruchez
Administrator
In reply to this post by Don Smith-9
Don,

This the control remains relevant, then it should still work. This  
sounds like a possible bug. Could you build a very simple reproducible  
case that works in the sandbox?

-Erik

On May 6, 2008, at 12:18 PM, Don Smith wrote:

> I've got the following trigger:
>
> <xforms:trigger bind="trigger_available">
> <xforms:label>Select</xforms:label>
> <xforms:action ev:event="DOMActivate">
>   <xforms:setvalue
> ref="list_A/selected">true</xforms:setvalue>
> </xforms:action>
> </xforms:trigger>
>
> which works fine *until* I place the
> bind="trigger_available" attribute on it. The bind
> statement sets the relevance of the trigger. Once I
> set the relevance, the Select button still appears,
> but it no longer works.
>
> So either something is wrong with my bind statement,
> or something funny is happening to the operation of
> "setvalue" even though the bind statement is ok. I'm
> assuming that something is wrong with my bind
> statement, but so far I haven't figured out what it
> is.
>
> So now I just want to check and make sure that, given
> a proper bind statement, this trigger should function
> exactly as it does without the bind statement.
>
> Is that correct?
>
> Thanks,
>
> Don
>
>
>      
> ____________________________________________________________________________________
> Be a better friend, newshound, and
> know-it-all with Yahoo! Mobile.  Try it now.  http://mobile.yahoo.com/;_ylt=Ahu06i62sR8HDtDypao8Wcj9tAcJ
>
>
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Don Smith-9
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Re: Re: can a bind prevent a trigger's set value?

Don Smith-9
Erik,

I created a test file and the set value for the
trigger-with-bind worked, so something was wrong with
my original implementation. But I've since decided to
take a different approach, so it's no longer an issue
and I'm not interested in digging further into it.

But the good news that it doesn't appear to be a bug.

Thanks for your reply,

Don

--- Erik Bruchez <[hidden email]> wrote:

> Don,
>
> This the control remains relevant, then it should
> still work. This  
> sounds like a possible bug. Could you build a very
> simple reproducible  
> case that works in the sandbox?
>
> -Erik
>
> On May 6, 2008, at 12:18 PM, Don Smith wrote:
>
> > I've got the following trigger:
> >
> > <xforms:trigger bind="trigger_available">
> > <xforms:label>Select</xforms:label>
> > <xforms:action ev:event="DOMActivate">
> >   <xforms:setvalue
> > ref="list_A/selected">true</xforms:setvalue>
> > </xforms:action>
> > </xforms:trigger>
> >
> > which works fine *until* I place the
> > bind="trigger_available" attribute on it. The bind
> > statement sets the relevance of the trigger. Once
> I
> > set the relevance, the Select button still
> appears,
> > but it no longer works.
> >
> > So either something is wrong with my bind
> statement,
> > or something funny is happening to the operation
> of
> > "setvalue" even though the bind statement is ok.
> I'm
> > assuming that something is wrong with my bind
> > statement, but so far I haven't figured out what
> it
> > is.
> >
> > So now I just want to check and make sure that,
> given
> > a proper bind statement, this trigger should
> function
> > exactly as it does without the bind statement.
> >
> > Is that correct?
> >
> > Thanks,
> >
> > Don
> >
> >
> >      
> >
>
____________________________________________________________________________________
> > Be a better friend, newshound, and
> > know-it-all with Yahoo! Mobile.  Try it now.
>
http://mobile.yahoo.com/;_ylt=Ahu06i62sR8HDtDypao8Wcj9tAcJ

> >
> >
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> Right Way
> http://www.orbeon.com/
>
> >
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